Operating System Questions & Answers – Basics
Operating System Questions & Answers – Basics
1. What is an operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided
by the ___________
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating
system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during
booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which cannot be loaded in running
operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating
system?
a) Power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. By operating system, the resource management can be done via
__________
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information
to a ______
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in
user processes and in the kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. The OS X has ____________
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Processes
1. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are
called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Those systems which allows more than one process execution at a
time, are called multiprogramming systems. Uniprocessing means only one
processor.
2. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. In UNIX, Which system call creates the new process?
a) Fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When process is unable to run until some task has been completed,
the process is in blocked state and if process is using the CPU, it is in
running state.
6. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated
child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current
process is provided by the __________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Process Control Block
1. A Process Control Block (PCB) does not contain which of the
following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as
__________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The state of a process is defined by __________
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. What is a Process Control Block?
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) The number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
View Answer
Answer:
8. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. What is the objective of multiprogramming?
a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Process Scheduling Queues
1. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. When the process issues an I/O request __________
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. What will happen when a process terminates?
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is a long-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be
______ and the Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. What is a medium-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. What is a short-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long
term scheduler is __________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process
itself is __________
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a
process is completed, the process goes from the running state to the __________
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. In a multiprogramming environment __________
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O
service. When the service is completed, it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Process Synchronization
1. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the
system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the
outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which the access
takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other
processes can be executing in their critical section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known as mutex locks.
7. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority
task effectively inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario
is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. Process synchronization can be done on __________
a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________
a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________
a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Process Creation
1. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources
prevents any process from __________
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until
children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes
before the parent terminates ______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile
all other process are waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than
one process can be running simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________
a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the
child process and _____ for the parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. The child process can __________
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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8. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps
executing, then the child process is known as __________
a) Orphan
b) Zombie
c) Body
d) Dead
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Inter Process Communication
1. What is Inter process communication?
a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the
same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using
the same address space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. Message passing system allows processes to __________
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC
facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. Messages sent by a process __________
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages
is called __________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?
a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max.
number of processes supported by system)
b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of
processes supported by system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and
Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. In the non blocking send __________
a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. In the Zero capacity queue __________
a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. The Zero Capacity queue __________
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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11. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as
__________
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Remote Procedure Calls
1. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________
a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other
on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______
are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client side, a separate one for each
remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is stub?
a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the
message and invokes procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems
RPCs define _____________
a) machine dependent representation of data
b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. What is the full form of RMI?
a) Remote Memory Installation
b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. The remote method invocation __________
a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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8. A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different
systems and can communicate with other processes using message based
communication, is called ________
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Process Structures
1. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is
called __________
a) boot program
b) bootloader
c) initializer
d) bootstrap program
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. How does the software trigger an interrupt?
a) Sending signals to CPU through bus
b) Executing a special operation called system call
c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special program called interrupt trigger program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. What is a trap/exception?
a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an error
b) software generated interrupt caused by an error
c) user generated interrupt caused by an error
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. What is an ISR?
a) Information Service Request
b) Interrupt Service Request
c) Interrupt Service Routine
d) Information Service Routine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. What is an interrupt vector?
a) It is an address that is indexed to an interrupt handler
b) It is a unique device number that is indexed by an address
c) It is a unique identity given to an interrupt
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. DMA is used for __________
a) High speed devices(disks and communications network)
b) Low speed devices
c) Utilizing CPU cycles
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. In a memory mapped input/output __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if
a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control
register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. In a programmed input/output(PIO) __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if
a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control
register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. In an interrupt driven input/output __________
a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if
a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control
register to show that a byte is available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. In the layered approach of Operating Systems __________
a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface
b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface
c) Bottom Layer(N) is the hardware
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – CPU Scheduling
1. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called _____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as ____________
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process
that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel is
unaware of them.
Operating System Questions and Answers – CPU Scheduling Benefits
1. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.
a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________
a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________
scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no other choice.
7. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is
called ____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. What is Dispatch latency?
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping
the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. What is Turnaround time?
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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13. What is Waiting time?
a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
14. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
15. What is Response time?
a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is
produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – CPU Scheduling Algorithms-1
1. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system
____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the processes will be able to get completed.
3. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with ____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Large computers are overloaded with a greater number of processes.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called ____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. What is Scheduling?
a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle
processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are
scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following
quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have
a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule
sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually
________ and that for long jobs is slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
I.
Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II.
Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III.
Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is a preemptive
version of shortest job scheduling. It may cause starvation as shorter
processes may keep coming and a long CPU burst process never gets CPU.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If priority based scheduling with
preemption is used, then a low priority process may never get CPU.
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves response time as all processes get CPU
after a specified time.
Operating System Questions and Answers – CPU Scheduling Algorithms-2
1. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the
CPU at regular intervals.
4. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst
time given in milliseconds.
Process
Burst time
P1
6
P2
8
P3
7
P4
3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling
algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called
____________
a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is
____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the lower the priority.
7. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. What is ‘Aging’?
a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority
processes is ____________
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
i)
Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
ii)
Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
iii)
Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
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a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
11. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average
waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – The Critical Section (CS)
Problem and Solutions
1. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________
a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same
data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular
order in which access takes place is called ____________
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables,
update tables, write into files is known as ____________
a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the
critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________
a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process
must be executing in their critical sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must
be executing in their critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of
the system must be blocked until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of
times a process is allowed to enter its critical section ____________
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before
the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes
to solve the critical section problem.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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8. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem
____________
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with
the lowest number is served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is
served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is
served next
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Semaphores – 1
1. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________
a) single
b) atomic
c) static
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________
a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.
a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?
a) wait
b) stop
c) hold
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What are Spinlocks?
a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?
a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic
_______ system call.
a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic
_______ system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. If the semaphore value is negative ____________
a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is
performed on it
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The following program consists of 3 concurrent processes and 3
binary semaphores. The semaphores are initialized as S0 = 1, S1 = 0, S2 = 0.
Process
P0
while(true)
{
wait(S0);
print '0';
release(S1);
release(S2);
}
Process
P1
wait(S1);
release(S0);
Process
P2
wait(S2);
release(S0);
How many times will P0 print ‘0’?
a) At least twice
b) Exactly twice
c) Exactly thrice
d) Exactly once
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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12. Each process Pi, i = 0,1,2,3,……,9 is coded as follows.
repeat
P(mutex)
{Critical Section}
V(mutex)
forever
The code for P10 is identical except that it uses V(mutex) instead of
P(mutex). What is the largest number of processes that can be inside the
critical section at any moment (the mutex being initialized to 1)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Any one of the 9 processes can get into critical section after
executing P(mutex) which decrements the mutex value to 0. At this time P10 can
enter critical section by incrementing the value to 1. Now any of the 9
processes can enter the critical section by again decrementing the mutex value
to 0. None of the remaining processes can get into their critical sections.
13. Two processes, P1 and P2, need to access a critical section of code.
Consider the following synchronization construct used by the processes.
Process
P1 :
while(true)
{
w1
= true;
while(w2
== true);
Critical
section
w1
= false;
}
Remainder
Section
Process
P2 :
while(true)
{
w2
= true;
while(w1
== true);
Critical
section
w2
= false;
}
Remainder
Section
Here, w1 and w2 have shared variables, which are initialized to false.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the above construct?
a) It does not ensure mutual exclusion
b) It does not ensure bounded waiting
c) It requires that processes enter the critical section in strict alternation
d) It does not prevent deadlocks but ensures mutual exclusion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Semaphores – 2
1. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a thread which had already locked a mutex, tries to lock the
mutex again, it will enter into the waiting list of that mutex, which results
in a deadlock. It is because no other thread can unlock the mutex.
2. What is a semaphore?
a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. What are the two kinds of semaphores?
a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. What is a mutex?
a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore
is 7.Then 20 P operations and 15 V operations were completed on this semaphore.
The resulting value of the semaphore is? (GATE 1987)
a) 42
b) 2
c) 7
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P represents Wait and V represents Signal. P operation will
decrease the value by 1 every time and V operation will increase the value by 1
every time.
6. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. The following pair of processes share a common variable X.
Process
A
int
Y;
A1:
Y = X*2;
A2:
X = Y;
Process
B
int
Z;
B1:
Z = X+1;
B2:
X = Z;
X is set to 5 before either process begins execution. As usual,
statements within a process are executed sequentially, but statements in
process A may execute in any order with respect to statements in process B.
How many different values of X are possible after both processes finish
executing?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) eight
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here are the possible ways in which statements from A and B can be
interleaved.
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11
A1 B1 A2 B2: X = 6
A1 B1 B2 A2: X = 10
B1 A1 B2 A2: X = 10
B1 A1 A2 B2: X = 6
B1 B2 A1 A2: X = 12.
8. The program follows to use a shared binary semaphore T.
Process
A
int
Y;
A1:
Y = X*2;
A2:
X = Y;
signal(T);
Process
B
int
Z;
B1:
wait(T);
B2:
Z = X+1;
X
= Z;
T is set to 0 before either process begins execution and, as before, X
is set to 5.
Now, how many different values of X are possible after both processes finish
executing?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The semaphore T ensures that all the statements from A finish
execution before B begins. So now there is only one way in which statements
from A and B can be interleaved:
A1 A2 B1 B2: X = 11.
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9. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________
a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging
d) Progress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Classic Synchronization
Problems
1. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________
a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full
semaphores that ____________
a) count the number of empty and full buffers
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. In the bounded buffer problem ____________
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem
_______ are given exclusive access to the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________
a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem
____________
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized
to 1. Each process must execute wait(mutex) before entering the critical
section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
signal(mutex);
.....
critical
section
.....
wait(mutex);
In this situation :
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex,
initialized to 1. Each process must execute wait(mutex) before entering the
critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
wait(mutex);
.....
critical
section
.....
wait(mutex);
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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9. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their
critical sections whenever needed, as given below. The initial values of shared
boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly assigned. (GATE 2010)
Method
used by P1 :
while(S1==S2);
Critical
section
S1
= S2;
Method
used by P2 :
while(S1!=S2);
Critical
section
S2
= not(S1);
Which of the following statements describes properties achieved?
a) Mutual exclusion but not progress
b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
d) Both mutual exclusion and progress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Monitors
1. A monitor is a type of ____________
a) semaphore
b) low level synchronization construct
c) high level synchronization construct
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. A monitor is characterized by ____________
a) a set of programmer defined operators
b) an identifier
c) the number of variables in it
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables
declared locally within the _______ and its formal parameters.
a) process, semaphore
b) process, monitor
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. The monitor construct ensures that ____________
a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor
b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being
greater than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?
a) wait & signal
b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold
d) continue & signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?
a) suspended until another process invokes the signal operation
b) waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal
operation
c) stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. If no process is suspended, the signal operation ____________
a) puts the system into a deadlock state
b) suspends some default process execution
c) nothing happens
d) the output is unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Atomic Transactions
1. A collection of instructions that performs a single logical function
is called ____________
a) transaction
b) operation
c) function
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. A terminated transaction that has completed its execution
successfully is ____________ otherwise it is __________
a) committed, destroyed
b) aborted, destroyed
c) committed, aborted
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The state of the data accessed by an aborted transaction must be
restored to what it was just before the transaction started executing. This
restoration is known as ________ of transaction.
a) safety
b) protection
c) roll – back
d) revert – back
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Write ahead logging is a way ____________
a) to ensure atomicity
b) to keep data consistent
c) that records data on stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. In the write ahead logging a _____________ is maintained.
a) a memory
b) a system
c) a disk
d) a log record
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. An actual update is not allowed to a data item ____________
a) before the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
b) after the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
c) until the whole log record has been checked for inconsistencies
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. The undo and redo operations must be _________ to guarantee correct
behaviour, even if a failure occurs during recovery process.
a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Idempotent – Multiple executions of an operation have the same
result as does one execution.
8. The system periodically performs checkpoints that consists of the
following operation(s) ____________
a) Putting all the log records currently in main memory onto stable storage
b) putting all modified data residing in main memory onto stable storage
c) putting a log record onto stable storage
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Consider a transaction T1 that committed prior to checkpoint. The
<T1 commits> record appears in the log before the <checkpoint>
record. Any modifications made by T1 must have been written to the stable
storage either with the checkpoint or prior to it. Thus at recovery time
____________
a) There is a need to perform an undo operation on T1
b) There is a need to perform a redo operation on T1
c) There is no need to perform an undo and redo operation on T1
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Serializable schedules are ones where ____________
a) concurrent execution of transactions is equivalent to the transactions
executed serially
b) the transactions can be carried out one after the other
c) a valid result occurs after execution transactions
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. A locking protocol is one that ____________
a) governs how locks are acquired
b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and released
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. The two phase locking protocol consists of ____________
a) growing & shrinking phase
b) shrinking & creation phase
c) creation & growing phase
d) destruction & creation phase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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13. The growing phase is a phase in which?
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
14. The shrinking phase is a phase in which?
a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
15. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both
conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock?
I) 2-phase locking
II) Timestamp ordering
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Deadlock
1. What is a reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be
possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other
resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. A system is in the safe state if ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still
avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually
denied necessary resources is called ____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to
determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Deadlock Prevention
1. The number of resources requested by a process ____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the
system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the
system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. What are Multithreaded programs?
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.
4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold
simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable
resource), the requesting process must be delayed until the resource has been
released.
6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________
a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be
freed, and then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire
additional resources that are being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire
additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion
____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.
9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________
a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be
involved in a deadlock.
10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the
system, it must be ensured that ____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other
resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it
begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it
can can request any additional resources, however it must release all the
resources that it is currently allocated.
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11. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources
before beginning its execution is ____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and
requests another resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it
____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are preempted
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
13. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to
____________
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one
precedes another in the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Deadlock Avoidance
1. Each request requires that the system consider the _____________ to
decide whether the current request can be satisfied or must wait to avoid a
future possible deadlock.
a) resources currently available
b) processes that have previously been in the system
c) resources currently allocated to each process
d) future requests and releases of each process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Given a priori information about the ________ number of resources of
each type that maybe requested for each process, it is possible to construct an
algorithm that ensures that the system will never enter a deadlock state.
a) minimum
b) average
c) maximum
d) approximate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the __________ to
ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.
a) resource allocation state
b) system storage state
c) operating system
d) resources
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resource allocation states are used to maintain the availability
of the already and current available resources.
4. A state is safe, if ____________
a) the system does not crash due to deadlock occurrence
b) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still
avoid a deadlock
c) the state keeps the system protected and safe
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. A system is in a safe state only if there exists a ____________
a) safe allocation
b) safe resource
c) safe sequence
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. All unsafe states are ____________
a) deadlocks
b) not deadlocks
c) fatal
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. A system has 12 magnetic tape drives and 3 processes : P0, P1, and
P2. Process P0 requires 10 tape drives, P1 requires 4 and P2 requires 9 tape
drives.
Process
P0
P1
P2
Maximum
needs (process-wise: P0 through P2 top to bottom)
10
4
9
Currently
allocated (process-wise)
5
2
2
Which of the following sequence is a safe sequence?
a) P0, P1, P2
b) P1, P2, P0
c) P2, P0, P1
d) P1, P0, P2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________
a) then the system will not be in a safe state
b) then the system will be in a safe state
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. The resource allocation graph is not applicable to a resource
allocation system ____________
a) with multiple instances of each resource type
b) with a single instance of each resource type
c) single & multiple instances of each resource type
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The Banker’s algorithm is _____________ than the resource allocation
graph algorithm.
a) less efficient
b) more efficient
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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11. The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are
____________
a) Available
b) Need
c) Allocation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. The content of the matrix Need is ____________
a) Allocation – Available
b) Max – Available
c) Max – Allocation
d) Allocation – Max
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
13. A system with 5 processes P0 through P4 and three resource types A,
B, C have A with 10 instances, B with 5 instances, and C with 7 instances. At
time t0, the following snapshot has been taken:
Process
P0
P1
P2
P3
P4
Allocation
(process-wise : P0 through P4
top TO bottom)
A B C
0 1 0
2 0 0
3 0 2
2 1 1
0 0 2
MAX (process-wise: P0 through P4 top
TO bottom)
A B C
7 5 3
3 2 2
9 0 2
2 2 2
4 3 3
Available
A B C
3 3 2
The sequence <P1, P3, P4, P2, P0> leads the system to ____________
a) an unsafe state
b) a safe state
c) a protected state
d) a deadlock
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Deadlock Detection
1. The wait-for graph is a deadlock detection algorithm that is
applicable when ____________
a) all resources have a single instance
b) all resources have multiple instances
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple instances
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait for graph indicates that
____________
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource that Pj needs
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. If the wait for graph contains a cycle ____________
a) then a deadlock does not exist
b) then a deadlock exists
c) then the system is in a safe state
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a safe state
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. If deadlocks occur frequently, the detection algorithm must be
invoked ________
a) rarely
b) frequently
c) rarely & frequently
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. What is the disadvantage of invoking the detection algorithm for
every request?
a) overhead of the detection algorithm due to consumption of memory
b) excessive time consumed in the request to be allocated memory
c) considerable overhead in computation time
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. A deadlock eventually cripples system throughput and will cause the
CPU utilization to ______
a) increase
b) drop
c) stay still
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Every time a request for allocation cannot be granted immediately,
the detection algorithm is invoked. This will help identify ____________
a) the set of processes that have been deadlocked
b) the set of processes in the deadlock queue
c) the specific process that caused the deadlock
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A computer system has 6 tape drives, with ‘n’ processes competing for
them. Each process may need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of ‘n’ for which
the system is guaranteed to be deadlock free is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 resources. If each process needs a
maximum of 2 units then, deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. ‘m’ processes share ‘n’ resources of the same type. The maximum need
of each process doesn’t exceed ‘n’ and the sum of all their maximum needs is
always less than m+n. In this setup, deadlock ____________
a) can never occur
b) may occur
c) has to occur
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Deadlock Recovery
1. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) preempt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are
____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the
termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following
factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Cost factors for process termination include ____________
a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its
execution
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue
with its normal execution and it must be ____________
a) aborted
b) rolled back
c) terminated
d) queued
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information
about the states of processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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8. If the resources are always preempted from the same process
__________ can occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. What is the solution to starvation?
a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
b) the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Swapping
Processes – 1
1. What is Address Binding?
a) going to an address in memory
b) locating an address with the help of another address
c) binding two addresses together to form a new address in a different memory
space
d) a mapping from one address space to another
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. Binding of instructions and data to memory addresses can be done at
____________
a) Compile time
b) Load time
c) Execution time
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. If the process can be moved during its execution from one memory
segment to another, then binding must be ____________
a) delayed until run time
b) preponed to compile time
c) preponed to load time
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is Dynamic loading?
a) loading multiple routines dynamically
b) loading a routine only when it is called
c) loading multiple routines randomly
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. What is the advantage of dynamic loading?
a) A used routine is used multiple times
b) An unused routine is never loaded
c) CPU utilization increases
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The idea of overlays is to ____________
a) data that are needed at any given time
b) enable a process to be larger than the amount of memory allocated to it
c) keep in memory only those instructions
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. The ___________ must design and program the overlay structure.
a) programmer
b) system architect
c) system designer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.
a) Memory manager
b) CPU
c) CPU manager
d) User
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. If a higher priority process arrives and wants service, the memory
manager can swap out the lower priority process to execute the higher priority
process. When the higher priority process finishes, the lower priority process
is swapped back in and continues execution. This variant of swapping is
sometimes called?
a) priority swapping
b) pull out, push in
c) roll out, roll in
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. If binding is done at assembly or load time, then the process _____
be moved to different locations after being swapped out and in again.
a) can
b) must
c) can never
d) may
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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11. In a system that does not support swapping ____________
a) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses (variables) to relocatable
addresses
b) the compiler normally binds symbolic addresses to physical addresses
c) the loader binds relocatable addresses to physical addresses
d) binding of symbolic addresses to physical addresses normally takes place
during execution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory
b) Overlays are used to increase the logical address space
c) When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of
the physical memory
d) Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the
logical address space
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Swapping
Processes – 2
1. The address generated by the CPU is referred to as ____________
a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. The address loaded into the memory address register of the memory is
referred to as ____________
a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a
hardware device called the ____________
a) Virtual to physical mapper
b) Memory management unit
c) Memory mapping unit
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The base register is also known as the ____________
a) basic register
b) regular register
c) relocation register
d) delocation register
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. The size of a process is limited to the size of ____________
a) physical memory
b) external storage
c) secondary storage
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. If execution time binding is being used, then a process ______ be
swapped to a different memory space.
a) has to be
b) can never
c) must
d) may
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Swapping requires a _________
a) motherboard
b) keyboard
c) monitor
d) backing store
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. The backing store is generally a ____________
a) fast disk
b) disk large enough to accommodate copies of all memory images for all users
c) disk to provide direct access to the memory images
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. The ________ consists of all processes whose memory images are in the
backing store or in memory and are ready to run.
a) wait queue
b) ready queue
c) cpu
d) secondary storage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. The _________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of
a new process into the memory is very high.
a) context – switch
b) waiting
c) execution
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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11. The major part of swap time is _______ time.
a) waiting
b) transfer
c) execution
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to
execute I/O operations only into operating system buffers.
a) must
b) can
c) must never
d) maybe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
13. Swap space is allocated ____________
a) as a chunk of disk
b) separate from a file system
c) into a file system
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Memory Management
1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called
____________
a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
____________
a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________
a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Program always deals with ____________
a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. The page table contains ____________
a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________
a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Memory
Allocation – 1
1. The main memory accommodates ____________
a) operating system
b) cpu
c) user processes
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. What is the operating system?
a) in the low memory
b) in the high memory
c) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. In contiguous memory allocation ____________
a) each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
b) all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The relocation register helps in ____________
a) providing more address space to processes
b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be
_______ the limit register.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being
modified by an already running process because ____________
a) they are in different memory spaces
b) they are in different logical addresses
c) they have a protection algorithm
d) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation
and limit registers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Transient operating system code is code that ____________
a) is not easily accessible
b) comes and goes as needed
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during
program execution.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) changes
d) maintains
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each
partition may contain ________
a) exactly one process
b) at least one process
c) multiple processes at once
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded
by ___________
a) the number of partitions
b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory size
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
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11. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a
______
a) process from a queue to put in memory
b) processor to run the next process
c) free hole from a set of available holes
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Memory
Allocation – 2
1. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and
____________
a) is being used
b) is not being used
c) is always used
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is ____________
a) compaction
b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is
to ____________
a) permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous
b) permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction
_________
a) cannot be done
b) must be done
c) must not be done
d) can be done
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all
holes to the other direction, producing one large hole of available memory is
____________
a) the cost incurred
b) the memory used
c) the CPU used
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. __________ is generally faster than _________ and _________
a) first fit, best fit, worst fit
b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. External fragmentation exists when?
a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. External fragmentation will not occur when?
a) first fit is used
b) best fit is used
c) worst fit is used
d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be
____________
a) larger than the memory
b) larger than the hole itself
c) very small
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the
process, then ____________
a) internal fragmentation occurs
b) external fragmentation occurs
c) both internal and external fragmentation occurs
d) neither internal nor external fragmentation occurs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Paging – 1
1. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called
_________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. They
are ____________
a) frame bit & page number
b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
d) frame offset & page offset
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.
a) frame bit
b) page number
c) page offset
d) frame offset
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical
memory.
a) process
b) memory
c) page
d) frame
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. The size of a page is typically ____________
a) varied
b) power of 2
c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a
page size is 2 to the power of n addressing units, then the high order _____
bits of a logical address designate the page number, and the ____ low order
bits designate the page offset.
a) m, n
b) n, m
c) m – n, m
d) m – n, n
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.
a) internal
b) external
c) either type of
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how
many frames have been allocated, how many are there, and how many are
available.
a) page
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Paging increases the ______ time.
a) waiting
b) execution
c) context – switch
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______
a) queues
b) stacks
c) counters
d) registers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12. The page table registers should be built with _______
a) very low speed logic
b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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13. For larger page tables, they are kept in main memory and a
__________ points to the page table.
a) page table base register
b) page table base pointer
c) page table register pointer
d) page table base
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
14. For every process there is a __________
a) page table
b) copy of page table
c) pointer to page table
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
15. Time taken in memory access through PTBR is ____________
a) extended by a factor of 3
b) extended by a factor of 2
c) slowed by a factor of 3
d) slowed by a factor of 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management – Paging – 2
1. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TLB) consists of
____________
a) key
b) value
c) bit value
d) constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a
____________
a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide
address space protection for that process.
a) address space locator
b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as
____________
a) miss ratio
b) hit ratio
c) miss percent
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________
a) protection algorithm with each page
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the
associated page ____________
a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it
c) is in the process’s logical address space
d) is the system’s physical address space
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Illegal addresses are trapped using the _____ bit.
a) error
b) protection
c) valid – invalid
d) access
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging
would be ____________
a) not to page
b) a two level paging algorithm
c) the page table itself
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access
a page in secondary memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a
page in primary memory is 10 ns. The average time required to access a page is?
a) 3.0 ns
b) 68.0 ns
c) 68.5 ns
d) 78.5 ns
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With
dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is called. For implementing
dynamic loading ____________
a) special support from hardware is required
b) special support from operating system is essential
c) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from
hardware or operating system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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11. In paged memory systems, if the page size is increased, then the
internal fragmentation generally ____________
a) becomes less
b) becomes more
c) remains constant
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions and Answers – Memory Management –
Segmentation
1. In segmentation, each address is specified by ____________
a) a segment number & offset
b) an offset & value
c) a value & segment number
d) a key & value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. In paging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the
hardware into ________ and ______
a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Each entry in a segment table has a ____________
a) segment base
b) segment peak
c) segment value
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. The segment base contains the ____________
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. The segment limit contains the ____________
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be ____________
a) greater than segment limit
b) between 0 and segment limit
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. If the offset is legal ____________
a) it is used as a physical memory address itself
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory
address
c) it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes
point to the same physical location ____________
a) the segments are invalid
b) the processes get blocked
c) segments are shared
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. The protection bit is 0/1 based on ____________
a) write only
b) read only
c) read – write
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address
should have ____________
a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
c) 15 bits
d) 16 bits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To specify a particular segment, 5 bits are required. To select a
particular byte after selecting a page, 10 more bits are required. Hence 15
bits are required.
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11. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and a 128K cache.
The cache block size is 4 K. It uses a direct mapping scheme for cache
management. How many different main memory blocks can map onto a given physical
cache block?
a) 2048
b) 256
c) 64
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level
page table for translating virtual address to physical address because
____________
a) it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location
b) it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual
address space of a process
c) it is required by the translation lookaside buffer
d) it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – I/O System – Application I/O
Interface – 1
1. If one or more devices use a common set of wires to communicate with
the computer system, the connection is called ______
a) CPU
b) Monitor
c) Wirefull
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. A ____ a set of wires and a rigidly defined protocol that specifies a
set of messages that can be sent on the wires.
a) port
b) node
c) bus
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. When device A has a cable that plugs into device B, and device B has
a cable that plugs into device C and device C plugs into a port on the
computer, this arrangement is called a _________
a) port
b) daisy chain
c) bus
d) cable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The _________ present a uniform device-access interface to the I/O
subsystem, much as system calls provide a standard interface between the
application and the operating system.
a) Devices
b) Buses
c) Device drivers
d) I/O systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. A ________ is a collection of electronics that can operate a port, a
bus, or a device.
a) controller
b) driver
c) host
d) bus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. An I/O port typically consists of four registers status, control,
________ and ________ registers.
a) system in, system out
b) data in, data out
c) flow in, flow out
d) input, output
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. The ______ register is read by the host to get input.
a) flow in
b) flow out
c) data in
d) data out
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. The ______ register is written by the host to send output.
a) status
b) control
c) data in
d) data out
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. The hardware mechanism that allows a device to notify the CPU is
called _______
a) polling
b) interrupt
c) driver
d) controlling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. The CPU hardware has a wire called __________ that the CPU senses
after executing every instruction.
a) interrupt request line
b) interrupt bus
c) interrupt receive line
d) interrupt sense line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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11. The _________ determines the cause of the interrupt, performs the
necessary processing and executes a return from the interrupt instruction to
return the CPU to the execution state prior to the interrupt.
a) interrupt request line
b) device driver
c) interrupt handler
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
12. In general the two interrupt request lines are ____________
a) maskable & non maskable interrupts
b) blocked & non maskable interrupts
c) maskable & blocked interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
13. The _________ are reserved for events such as unrecoverable memory
errors.
a) non maskable interrupts
b) blocked interrupts
c) maskable interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – I/O System – Application I/O
Interface – 2
1. The ________ can be turned off by the CPU before the execution of
critical instruction sequences that must not be interrupted.
a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt
c) maskable interrupt
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. The __________ is used by device controllers to request service.
a) nonmaskable interrupt
b) blocked interrupt
c) maskable interrupt
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The interrupt vector contains ____________
a) the interrupts
b) the memory addresses of specialized interrupt handlers
c) the identifiers of interrupts
d) the device addresses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Division by zero, accessing a protected or non existent memory
address, or attempting to execute a privileged instruction from user mode are
all categorized as ________
a) errors
b) exceptions
c) interrupt handlers
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. For large data transfers, _________ is used.
a) dma
b) programmed I/O
c) controller register
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. A character stream device transfers ____________
a) bytes one by one
b) block of bytes as a unit
c) with unpredictable response times
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. A block device transfers ____________
a) bytes one by one
b) block of bytes as a unit
c) with unpredictable response times
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. What is a dedicated device?
a) opposite to a sharable device
b) same as a sharable device
c) can be used concurrently by several processes
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A keyboard is an example of a device that is accessed through a
__________ interface.
a) block stream
b) set of blocks
c) character stream
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. In polling ____________
a) busy – wait cycles wait for I/O from device
b) interrupt handler receives interrupts
c) interrupt-request line is triggered by I/O device
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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11. A non blocking system call _________________
a) halts the execution of the application for an extended time
b) does not halt the execution of the application
c) does not block the interrupts
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
12. An asynchronous call ____________
a) returns immediately, without waiting for the I/O to complete
b) does not return immediately and waits for the I/O to complete
c) consumes a lot of time
d) is too slow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – I/O System – Kernel I/O
Subsystems
1. Buffering is done to ____________
a) cope with device speed mismatch
b) cope with device transfer size mismatch
c) maintain copy semantics
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. Caching is ________ spooling.
a) same as
b) not the same as
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. Caching ____________
a) holds a copy of the data
b) is fast memory
c) holds the only copy of the data
d) holds output for a device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Spooling ____________
a) holds a copy of the data
b) is fast memory
c) holds the only copy of the data
d) holds output for a device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. The ________ keeps state information about the use of I/O components.
a) CPU
b) OS
c) kernel
d) shell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. The kernel data structures include ____________
a) process table
b) open file table
c) close file table
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. Windows NT uses a __________ implementation for I/O.
a) message – passing
b) draft – passing
c) secondary memory
d) cache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A ________ is a full duplex connection between a device driver and a
user level process.
a) Bus
b) I/O operation
c) Stream
d) Flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. I/O is a _________ in system performance.
a) major factor
b) minor factor
c) does not matter
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. If the number of cycles spent busy – waiting is not excessive, then
____________
a) interrupt driven I/O is more efficient than programmed I/O
b) programmed I/O is more efficient than interrupt driven I/O
c) both programmed and interrupt driven I/O are equally efficient
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – RTOS
1. In real time operating system ____________
a) all processes have the same priority
b) a task must be serviced by its deadline period
c) process scheduling can be done only once
d) kernel is not required
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. Hard real time operating system has ______________ jitter than a soft
real time operating system.
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Jitter is the undesired deviation from the true periodicity.
3. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be
____________
a) minimal
b) maximum
c) zero
d) dependent on the scheduling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Interrupt latency is the time duration between the generation of
interrupt and execution of its service.
4. In rate monotonic scheduling ____________
a) shorter duration job has higher priority
b) longer duration job has higher priority
c) priority does not depend on the duration of the job
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. In which scheduling certain amount of CPU time is allocated to each
process?
a) earliest deadline first scheduling
b) proportional share scheduling
c) equal share scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The problem of priority inversion can be solved by ____________
a) priority inheritance protocol
b) priority inversion protocol
c) both priority inheritance and inversion protocol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Time duration required for scheduling dispatcher to stop one process
and start another is known as ____________
a) process latency
b) dispatch latency
c) execution latency
d) interrupt latency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Time required to synchronous switch from the context of one thread to
the context of another thread is called?
a) threads fly-back time
b) jitter
c) context switch time
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Which one of the following is a real time operating system?
a) RTLinux
b) VxWorks
c) Windows CE
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. VxWorks is centered around ____________
a) wind microkernel
b) linux kernel
c) unix kernel
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Real Time System –
Implementing RT Operating Systems – 1
1. What is the disadvantage of real addressing mode?
a) there is a lot of cost involved
b) time consumption overhead
c) absence of memory protection between processes
d) restricted access to memory locations by processes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. Preemptive, priority based scheduling guarantees ____________
a) hard real time functionality
b) soft real time functionality
c) protection of memory
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. Real time systems must have ____________
a) preemptive kernels
b) non preemptive kernels
c) preemptive kernels or non preemptive kernels
d) neither preemptive nor non preemptive kernels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What is Event latency?
a) the amount of time an event takes to occur from when the system started
b) the amount of time from the event occurrence till the system stops
c) the amount of time from event occurrence till the event crashes
d) the amount of time that elapses from when an event occurs to when it is
serviced.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Interrupt latency refers to the period of time ____________
a) from the occurrence of an event to the arrival of an interrupt
b) from the occurrence of an event to the servicing of an interrupt
c) from arrival of an interrupt to the start of the interrupt service routine
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. Real time systems need to __________ the interrupt latency.
a) minimize
b) maximize
c) not bother about
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. The amount of time required for the scheduling dispatcher to stop one
process and start another is known as ______________
a) event latency
b) interrupt latency
c) dispatch latency
d) context switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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8. The most effective technique to keep dispatch latency low is to
____________
a) provide non preemptive kernels
b) provide preemptive kernels
c) make it user programmed
d) run less number of processes at a time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Priority inversion is solved by use of _____________
a) priority inheritance protocol
b) two phase lock protocol
c) time protocol
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Real Time System –
Implementing RT Operating Systems – 2
1. In a real time system the computer results ____________
a) must be produced within a specific deadline period
b) may be produced at any time
c) may be correct
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. In a safety critical system, incorrect operation ____________
a) does not affect much
b) causes minor problems
c) causes major and serious problems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Antilock brake systems, flight management systems, pacemakers are
examples of ____________
a) safety critical system
b) hard real time system
c) soft real time system
d) safety critical system and hard real time system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. In a ______ real time system, it is guaranteed that critical real
time tasks will be completed within their deadlines.
a) soft
b) hard
c) critical
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. Some of the properties of real time systems include ____________
a) single purpose
b) inexpensively mass produced
c) small size
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. The amount of memory in a real time system is generally ____________
a) less compared to PCs
b) high compared to PCs
c) same as in PCs
d) they do not have any memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. What is the priority of a real time task?
a) must degrade over time
b) must not degrade over time
c) may degrade over time
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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8. Memory management units ____________
a) increase the cost of the system
b) increase the power consumption of the system
c) increase the time required to complete an operation
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. The technique in which the CPU generates physical addresses directly
is known as ____________
a) relocation register method
b) real addressing
c) virtual addressing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Real Time System – Real Time
CPU Scheduling – 1
1. Earliest deadline first algorithm assigns priorities according to
____________
a) periods
b) deadlines
c) burst times
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a
period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. The total CPU utilization is ____________
a) 0.90
b) 0.74
c) 0.94
d) 0.80
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a
period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35., the priorities of P1 and P2 are?
a) remain the same throughout
b) keep varying from time to time
c) may or may not be change
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a
period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35., can the two processes be scheduled using
the EDF algorithm without missing their respective deadlines?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Using EDF algorithm practically, it is impossible to achieve 100
percent utilization due to __________
a) the cost of context switching
b) interrupt handling
c) power consumption
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. T shares of time are allocated among all processes out of N shares in
__________ scheduling algorithm.
a) rate monotonic
b) proportional share
c) earliest deadline first
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three
processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C
is assigned 20 shares.
A will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a) 20
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three processes,
A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C is assigned
20 shares.
B will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a) 20
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three
processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C
is assigned 20 shares.
C will have ______ percent of the total processor time.
a) 20
b) 15
c) 50
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to be divided among three
processes, A, B and C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15 shares and C
is assigned 20 shares.
If a new process D requested 30 shares, the admission controller would
__________
a) allocate 30 shares to it
b) deny entry to D in the system
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Real Time System – Real Time
CPU Scheduling – 2
1. To schedule the processes, they are considered _________
a) infinitely long
b) periodic
c) heavy weight
d) light weight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. If the period of a process is ‘p’, then what is the rate of the task?
a) p2
b) 2*p
c) 1/p
d) p
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The scheduler admits a process using __________
a) two phase locking protocol
b) admission control algorithm
c) busy wait polling
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. The ____________ scheduling algorithm schedules periodic tasks using
a static priority policy with preemption.
a) earliest deadline first
b) rate monotonic
c) first cum first served
d) priority
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5. Rate monotonic scheduling assumes that the __________
a) processing time of a periodic process is same for each CPU burst
b) processing time of a periodic process is different for each CPU burst
c) periods of all processes is the same
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. In rate monotonic scheduling, a process with a shorter period is
assigned __________
a) a higher priority
b) a lower priority
c) higher & lower priority
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. There are two processes P1 and P2, whose periods are 50 and 100
respectively. P1 is assigned higher priority than P2. The processing times are
t1 = 20 for P1 and t2 = 35 for P2. Is it possible to schedule these tasks so
that each meets its deadline using Rate monotonic scheduling?
a) yes
b) no
c) maybe
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. If a set of processes cannot be scheduled by rate monotonic
scheduling algorithm, then __________
a) they can be scheduled by EDF algorithm
b) they cannot be scheduled by EDF algorithm
c) they cannot be scheduled by any other algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a
period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. The total CPU utilization is?
a) 0.90
b) 0.74
c) 0.94
d) 0.80
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a
period of 80 and a CPU burst of 35. Can the processes be scheduled without
missing the deadlines?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Operating System Question & Answers – Multimedia Systems
1. What is multimedia file?
a) is same as any other regular file
b) must be accessed at specific rate
c) stored on remote server can not be delivered to its client
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. In which type of streaming multimedia file is delivered to the
client, but not shared?
a) real-time streaming
b) progressive download
c) compression
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a multimedia
system?
a) high storage
b) high data rates
c) both high storage and high data rates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. The delay that occur during the playback of a stream is called
___________
a) stream delay
b) playback delay
c) jitter
d) event delay
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. Which algorithm can be optimized to meet the timing deadlines and
rate requirements of continuous media?
a) Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling
b) SCAN-EDF scheduling
c) Both Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling & SCAN-EDF scheduling
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. Real time streaming protocol is used ___________
a) to control streaming media servers
b) for establishing and controlling media sessions between endpoints
c) to provide real time control of playback of media files from the server
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. In teardown state of real time streaming protocol is ___________
a) the server resources for client
b) server delivers the stream to client
c) server suspends delivery of stream
d) server breaks down the connection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. CineBlitz multimedia server supports ___________
a) real time clients
b) non-real time clients
c) both real time & non-real time clients
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Multimedia system require hard real time scheduling ___________
a) to ensure critical tasks will be serviced within timing deadlines
b) to deliver the media file to the client
c) to minimize the delay
d) for security
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Which one of the following resource is not necessarily required on a
file server?
a) secondary storage
b) processor
c) network
d) monitor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Operating System Questions & Answers – Multimedia System –
Compression – 1
1. The major difference between a multimedia file and a regular file is
___________
a) the size
b) the attributes
c) the ownership
d) the rate at which the file must be accessed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multimedia files must be accessed at a specific rate whereas
accessing regular files requires no special timings.
2. Video is represented as a series of images formally known as
___________
a) pics
b) shots
c) frames
d) snaps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. The faster the frames are displayed, ___________
a) the rougher the video appears
b) the smoother the video appears
c) it gets blurry
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The characteristic of the eye to retain the image for a short time
after it has been presented is known as ___________
a) persistence of vision
b) learning power
c) memory mapped input
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. When will Local playback be used?
a) the multimedia data are delivered from a local file system
b) a computer next to you is playing something
c) a multimedia file is being played on a system in the local network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Multimedia files stored on a remote server are delivered to a client
across the network using a technique known as ___________
a) download
b) streaming
c) flowing
d) leaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7. What are the two types of streaming techniques?
a) progressive download & real time streaming
b) regular download & real time streaming
c) real time & virtual time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8. A media file containing audio or video is downloaded and stored on
the client’s local file system in ___________
a) progressive download
b) regular download
c) real time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the file is being downloaded, the client is able to play back
the media file without having to wait for the file to be downloaded in its
entirety.
9. Progressive download is most useful for ___________
a) short video clips
b) long video clips
c) extremely long and high quality videos
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The media file is streamed to the client but is only played and not
stored by the client in ___________
a) progressive download
b) regular download
c) real time streaming
d) virtual time streaming
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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11. Real time streaming is most useful for ___________
a) short video clips
b) long video clips
c) extremely short and low quality videos
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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